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300-080 CTCOLLAB Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony & Video v1.0

Posted on March 19, 2016 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

Exam Number 300-080 CTCOLLAB
Associated Certifications CCNP Collaboration
Duration 75 Minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam assesses learner’s knowledge and skills that are required to troubleshoot a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution. The assessment covers troubleshooting methodology, triage, resources, and tools. The exam also covers Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control, the Cisco Expressway Series, Cisco TelePresence Management Suite, and media resources, including voice and video conferences.

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.
Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony & Video (CTCOLLAB)
Cisco Technology Training for Collaboration E-Learning

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that the two Cisco SAF Forwarders are adjacent to each other and that no SAF clients have been configured, which statement is true?

A. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship because the service-family external-client configuration is missing.
B. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship because the eigrp label CUCME should be replaced with SAF.
C. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship because the service-family external-client configuration is missing as well as the static neighbor configurations.
D. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will establish a neighbor relationship. No further configuration is required.
E. Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship until the SAF clients are configured and registered to the Cisco SAF Forwarders.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?

A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
To achieve 720p (HD) quality at 30 frames per second on an endpoint that is running TC software, what is the minimum configured call rate?

A. 512 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 768 kbps
D. 2560 kbps

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When parsing trace output after the call routing decision and path selection have been made, which two records can be found in the CCM|RouteList? (Choose two.)

A. PretransfromDigitString
B. CallingPartyNumber
C. PretransformCallingPartyNumber
D. RouteListName
E. findLocalDevice
F. RouteListCdrc :

Answer: D,F

QUESTION 5
When a user attempts to log out from Cisco Extension Mobility service by pressing the services button and selecting the Cisco Extension Mobility service, the user is not able to log out. What is causing this issue?

A. The Cisco Extension Mobility service has not been configured on the phone.
B. The user device profile is not subscribed to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. The CTI service is not running.
D. The logout URL that is defined for the Cisco Extension Mobility service is incorrect or does not exist under the IP Phone Services configuration.

Answer: B

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300-075 CIPTV2 Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0

Posted on March 14, 2016 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

Exam Number 300-075 CIPTV2
Associated Certifications CCNP Collaboration
Duration 75 Minutes (50 – 60 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment. It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility. The exam also describes the role of Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control and the Cisco Expressway Series and how they interact with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.
Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2)
Cisco Technology Training for Collaboration E-Learning

Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2) v1.0 exam is a 75 minute 55-65 question assessment that tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment. It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility. The exam also describes the role of Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control and the Cisco Expressway Series and how they interact with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 VCS Control 17%
1.1 Configure registration of devices
1.2 Explore the fundamentals of subzones
1.3 Describe zone plans for VCS
1.4 Describe and configure traversal zones
1.5 Describe the benefits and configuration of transforms and create call policies
1.6 Explore VCS searches for endpoints
1.7 Integrating LDAP
1.8 Explain DNS and SRV records and document requirements for SRV records
1.9 Describe how clustering and replication works and configure a cluster
1.10 Configure interworking with VCS
1.11 Configure H.323 (including gatekeeper) and SIP
1.12 Configure trunking

2.0 Collaboration Edge (VCS Expressway) 12%
2.1 Identify and configure the requirements when deploying a collaboration edge
2.2 Establish a relationship between C/Expressway E and CUCM
2.3 Document and produce requirements for firewall and NAT configuration
2.4 Describe and implement privacy and security controls for external devices and calls
2.5 Describe elements in a traversal call (H.460 and Assent)

3.0 Configure CUCM Video Service Parameters 9%
3.1 Configure DSCP
3.2 Configuring clusterwide parameters system QoS

4.0 Describe and Implement Centralized Call Processing Redundancy 10%
4.1 Describe device fail over
4.2 Configure call survivability
4.3 Configure Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony operation
4.4 Verify redundancy operations

5.0 Describe and Configure a Multi-site Dial Plan for Cisco Unified Communications Manager 17%
5.1 Describe the issues with multi-site dial plans
5.2 Describe the differences between the various gateways and trunk types supported by

Cisco Unified Communication Manager
5.3 Implement trunks to VCS
5.4 Describe globalized call routing based on URI dial plans and ILS
5.5 Implement a numbering plan for multi-site topologies

6.0 Implement Call Control Discovery/ILS 14%
6.1 Configure Service Advertisement Framework Forwarder
6.2 Configure Service Advertisement Framework Client Control
6.3 Configure Service Advertisement Framework Call Control Discovery
6.4 Configure URI calling
6.5 Configure ILS network
6.6 Configure Global Dial Plan Replication

7.0 Implement Video Mobility Features 9%
7.1 Configure extension mobility, and device mobility
7.2 Configure unified mobility (including video)

8.0 Implement Bandwidth Management and Call Admission Control on CUCM 12%
8.1 Configure regions
8.2 Implement transcoders and MTPs
8.3 Configure locations CAC and Enhanced CAC
8.4 Correlate events based on traces, logs, debugs and output of monitoring tools
8.5 Parse and interpret traces, logs, debugs and output of monitoring tools

QUESTION 1
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?

A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: A, C, D, E
Users access Cisco Extension Mobility by pressing the Services or Applications button on a Cisco Unified IP Phone and then entering login information in the form of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager UserID and a Personal Identification Number (PIN). If a user has more than one user device profile, a prompt displays on the phone and asks the user to choose a device profile for use with Cisco Extension Mobility.
Link: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_6_1/ccmfeat/fsem.html

QUESTION 2
Which ability does the Survivable Remote Site Telephony feature provide?

A. a means to allow the local site to continue to send and receive calls in the event of a WAN failure
B. a means to route calls on-net through other sites during high utilization periods
C. a method that allows for backup calls in the event that your gateway fails
D. the ability to force a call out of a certain trunk when the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is being upgraded

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?

A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance

A Composite Solution With Just One Click – Certification Guaranteed 3
national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
Which partition should be configured in the AAR CSS applied at the phones?

A. PSTN partition
B. LD partition
C. The HQ AAR CSS must include a partition assigned to route pattern 91408XXXXXXX. The BR1 AAR CSS must include a partition assigned to route pattern 91650XXXXXXX.
D. AAR CSS must contain translation pattern 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX for each site that must be globalized. Otherwise the called numbers will not be localized at the egress gateway.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

The HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been configured for end-to-end RSVP. The BR Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been configured for local
RSVP.
RSVP between the locations assigned to the IP phones and SIP trunks at each site are configured with mandatory RSVP. When a call is placed from the IP phone at HQ to the BR phone at the BR site, which statement is true?

A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager at HQ will fall back to local RSVP and place the call. No RSVP end-to-end will occur.
B. RSVP end-to-end will occur.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager at HQ will use end-to-end RSVP. The BR Cisco Unified Communications Manager will use local RSVP.
D. The call will fail.
E. The call will proceed as a normal call with no RSVP reservation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: A, B, C
A possible cause is that the same router is being used as the calling and called RSVP agents, and that router is not running the latest IOS version, which supports loopback on RSVP reservation. Make sure that the router is running the latest IOS version.
Link: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_6_1/ccmsys/a02rsvp.html #wp1155102

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210-260 Implementing Cisco Network Security

Posted on December 18, 2015 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

QUESTION 1
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)

A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)

A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)

A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an
access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network?
(Choose three.)

A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)

A. AES
B. 3DES
C. DES
D. MD5
E. DH-1024
F. SHA-384

Answer:

Explanation:

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300-115 SWITCH Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

Posted on May 20, 2015 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

300-115 SWITCH Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

Exam Number 300-115 SWITCH
Associated Certifications CCNP Routing and Switching CCDP
Duration 120 minutes (45-65 questions)
Available Languages English
Register Pearson VUE
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review type of exam questions

Additional Resources
Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching and CCDP certifications. The SWITCH 300-115 exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.

Exam Description
Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a 120-minute qualifying exam with 45‒55 questions for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching and CCDP certifications. The SWITCH 300-115 exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.

The SWITCH exam also covers highly secure integration of VLANs and WLANs.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific version of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity, the following guidelines may change at any time without notice.

Need CCENT, CCNA or CCNP Study Tools to prepare for your exams? A Cisco Learning Network Premium Subscription is the ultimate resource for CCENT, CCNA Routing and Switching, and CCNP self-study.

1.0 Layer 2 Technologies 65%
1.1 Configure and verify switch administration
1.1.a SDM templates
1.1.b Managing MAC address table
1.1.c Troubleshoot Err-disable recovery

1.2 Configure and verify Layer 2 protocols
1.2.a CDP, LLDP
1.2.b UDLD

1.3 Configure and verify VLANs
1.3.a Access ports
1.3.b VLAN database
1.3.c Normal, extended VLAN, voice VLAN

1.4 Configure and verify trunking
1.4.a VTPv1, VTPv2, VTPv3, VTP pruning
1.4.b dot1Q
1.4.c Native VLAN
1.4.d Manual pruning

1.5 Configure and verify EtherChannels
1.5.a LACP, PAgP, manual
1.5.b Layer 2, Layer 3
1.5.c Load balancing
1.5.d EtherChannel misconfiguration guard

1.6 Configure and verify spanning tree
1.6.a PVST+, RPVST+, MST
1.6.b Switch priority, port priority, path cost, STP timers
1.6.c PortFast, BPDUguard, BPDUfilter
1.6.d Loopguard and Rootguard

1.7 Configure and verify other LAN switching technologies
1.7.a SPAN, RSPAN

1.8 Describe chassis virtualization and aggregation technologies
1.8.a Stackwise

2.0 Infrastructure Security 20%

2.1 Configure and verify switch security features

2.1.a DHCP snooping
2.1.b IP Source Guard
2.1.c Dynamic ARP inspection
2.1.d Port security
2.1.e Private VLAN
2.1.f Storm control

2.2 Describe device security using Cisco IOS AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS

2.2.a AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS
2.2.b Local privilege authorization fallback

3.0 Infrastructure Services 15%

3.1 Configure and verify first-hop redundancy protocols

3.1.a HSRP
3.1.b VRRP
3.1.c GLBP

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QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration
must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?

A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?

A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an
EtherChannel?

A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is
received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?

A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.

Answer: C

Explanation:

642-736 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS)

Posted on March 24, 2015 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?

A. Identifying new attack tools
B. Auditing employee’s bandwidth usage
C. Identifying attacks using signature matching
D. Improving performance by load balancing

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
As of controller release v5.2, which two statements about wired guest access support are true?
(Choose two.)

A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
C. Layer 3 web authentication and passthrough are not supported.
D. Wired guest access cannot be configured in a dual-controller configuration that uses an anchor
controller and a foreign controller.
E. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
The wireless client can roam faster on the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure when
which condition is met?

A. EAP-FAST is used for client authentication on the wireless network.
B. Cisco Centralized Key Management is used for Fast Secure Roaming.
C. QoS is being used on the WLAN to control which client packets get through the network faster.
D. RRM protocol is used between multiple APs that the client associates to while roaming.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option best describes an evil twin attack?

A. A rouge access point broadcasting a trusted SSID
B. A rogue access point broadcasting any SSID
C. A rouge ad-hoc with the SSID “Free WiFi”
D. A rouge access point spreading malware upon client connection

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two configuration parameters does NAC OOB require on a SSID/WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. WMM enabled on the WLAN
B. Open authentication on the WLAN
C. AAA override configuration on the WLAN
D. 802.1x configuration on the WLAN

Answer: B,D

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642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0

Posted on February 17, 2015 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

QUESTION 1
Which statement describes the major difference between PEAP and EAP-FAST client
authentication?

A. EAP-FAST requires a backend AAA server, and PEAP does not.
B. EAP-FAST is a Cisco-only proprietary protocol, whereas PEAP is an industry-standard
protocol.
C. PEAP requires a server-side certificate, while EAP-FAST does not require certificates.
D. PEAP authentication protocol requires a client certificate, and EAP-FAST requires a secure
password.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which one best describes the EAP Identity Request frame when a wireless client is connecting to
a Cisco WLC v7.0-based AP WLAN?

A. sourced from the Cisco ACS Server to the client
B. sourced from the client to the Cisco ACS Server
C. sourced from the WLC to the client
D. sourced from the client to the WLC
E. sourced from the AP to the client
F. sourced from the client to the AP

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
What are the four packet types that are used by EAP? (Choose four.)

A. EAP Type
B. EAP Request
C. EAP Identity
D. EAP Response
E. EAP Success
F. EAP Failure
G. EAP Authentication

Answer: B,D,E,F

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the
client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?

A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which EAP types are supported by MAC 10.7 for authentication to a Cisco Unified Wireless
Network?

A. LEAP and EAP-Fast only
B. EAP-TLS and PEAP only
C. LEAP, EAP-TLS, and PEAP only
D. LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-TLS, and PEAP

Answer: D

Explanation:

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300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)

Posted on February 10, 2015 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.|

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?

A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the
incomplete marking?

A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and
decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?

A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network
with no QoS? (Choose three.)

A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single
connection during the migration process?

A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT

Answer: A

Explanation:

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642-825 Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks

Posted on April 4, 2014 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP

QUESTION 1
What technology must be enabled as a prerequisite to running MPLS on a Cisco router?

A. process switching
B. CEF switching
C. fast switching
D. cache driven switching
E. routing-table driven switching

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configuring Cisco Express Forwarding
To enable MPLS, you must first enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) switching.
Reference: “CCNP ISCW Portable Command Guide” By Scott Empson, Hans Roth.
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1180984

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which ACL configuration will prevent a DoS TCP SYN attack from a spoofed source into the
internal network?

A. R1(config)# access-list 120 deny icmp any any echo log
R1(config)# access-list 120 deny icmp any any redirect log
R1(config)# access-list 120 permit icmp any 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
R1(config)# interface Serial0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 120 in
B. R1(config)# access-list 120 permit tcp any 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 established
R1(config)# access-list 120 deny ip any any log
R1(config)# interface FastEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 120 in
C. R1(config)# access-list 120 deny ip any host 10.0.0.255 log
R1(config)# access-list 120 permit ip any 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 log
R1(config)# interface Serial0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 120 in
D. R1(config)# access-list 120 deny udp 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 255.255.255.255 eq 512
R1(config)# interface Serial0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 120 in

Answer: B

Explanation:
The TCP SYN Attack
When a normal TCP connection starts, a destination host receives a SYN (synchronize/start)
packet from a source host and sends back a SYN ACK (synchronize acknowledge). The
destination host must then hear an ACK (acknowledge) of the SYN ACK before the connection is
established. This is referred to as the “TCP three-way handshake.”
While waiting for the ACK to the SYN ACK, a connection queue of finite size on the destination
host keeps track of connections waiting to be completed. This queue typically empties quickly
since the ACK is expected to arrive a few milliseconds after the SYN ACK.
The TCP SYN attack exploits this design by having an attacking source host generate TCP SYN
packets with random source addresses toward a victim host. The victim destination host sends a
SYN ACK back to the random source address and adds an entry to the connection queue. Since
the SYN ACK is destined for an incorrect or non-existent host, the last part of the “three-way
handshake” is never completed and the entry remains in the connection queue until a timer
expires, typically for about one minute. By generating phony TCP SYN packets from random IP
addresses at a rapid rate, it is possible to fill up the connection queue and deny TCP services
(such as e-mail, file transfer, or WWW) to legitimate users.
There is no easy way to trace the originator of the attack because the IP address of the source is
forged.
In this example, this type of attack could be stopped since we are allowing only traffic that was
originated by the internal (fa0/0) network destined to the R1 branch network with the use of the
“established” keyword.

QUESTION 3
This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by
clicking on the Questions button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking
the numbers to the left of each question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer
to the SDM and the topolgy, neither of which is currently visible.
To gain access to either the topology or the SDM, click on the button to left side of the screen that
corresponds to the section you wish to access. When you have finished viewing the topolgy or the
SDM, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Off Shore Industries is a large worldwide sailing charter. The company has recently upgraded its
Internet connectivity. As a recent addition to the network engineering team, you have been tasked
with documenting the active Firewall configurations on the Annapolis router using the Cisco Router
and Security Device Manager (SDM) utility. Using the SDM output from Firewall and ACL Tasks
under the Configure tab, answer the following questions:
Which two statements would be true for a permissible incoming TCP packet on an untrusted
Interface in this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The session originated from a trusted Interface
B. The application is not specified within the inspection rule SDM_LOW.
C. The session originated from an untrusted interface
D. The packet has a source address of 10.79.233.186
E. The packet has a source address of 172.16.81.108
F. The packet has a source address of 198.133.219.135

Answer: A,F

Explanation:
According to the question, after configuring CBAC, the TCP traffic on the untrusted interface can
be divided into two types : 1. The inspected return traffic from the intranet is permitted by the state
table, so C is right. 2. The TCP traffic permitted by the ACL comes from external network, so E is
right.

The direction of ACL101 is from S0/0/0 to f0/0, which only allows the echo- reply/ icmp, timeexceede,
unreachable services of the destination address of 172.16.81.108, denies any IP data
packets from 0.0.0.0/8, 10.0.0.0/8, 127.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, 192.168.0.0/16, 224.0.0.0/4,
240.0.0.0/4 and 10.79.223/24, as well as adds log to any access. As to the address
172.16.81.108, only part of the ICMP packets are allowed. The address 198.133.219.135 is first
initiated from the inside network. If an address of 198.133.219.135 is received from the outside
network it should be directely dropped.

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the name given to the security zone occupied by the public web
server?

A. proxy network
B. ALG
C. DMZ
D. multiple DMZs
E. extended proxy network
F. protected subnet

Answer: C

Explanation:
A DMZ, short for demilitarized zone, is a computer or small subnetwork that sits between a trusted
internal network, such as a corporate private LAN, and an untrusted external network, such as the
public Internet.
Typically, the DMZ contains devices accessible to Internet traffic, such as Web ( HTTP ) servers,
FTP servers, SMTP (e-mail) servers and DNS servers. The term comes from military use,
meaning a buffer area between two enemies.
A DMZ is the most common and secure firewall topology. It is often referred to as a screened
subnet. A DMZ creates a secure space between your Internet and your network, as shown in the
figure below:

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What are the two options that are used to provide High Availability IPsec?
(Choose two.)

A. IPsec Stateful Switchover (SSO)
B. Dynamic Crypto Map
C. IPsec Backup Peerings
D. Dual Router Mode (DRM) IPsec
E. RRI
F. HSRP

Answer: E,F

Explanation:
Reverse route injection (RRI) is the ability for static routes to be automatically inserted into the
routing process for those networks and hosts protected by a remote tunnel endpoint. These
protected hosts and networks are known as remote proxy identities. This is configured using the
“reverse-route” command.
The Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring
that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first hop failures in network edge
devices or access circuits. This is done by logically grouping one or more routers into a single
virtual gateway, and HSRP is configured using the “standby” configuration commands.

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642-035: Troubleshooting Cisco Unified Computing (DCUCT)

Posted on July 31, 2013 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP Leave a comment

QUESTION 1
A customer is trying to boot an operating system that is installed on the eUSB on a Cisco UCS BSeries
blade server; however, the boot fails. What is the cause of this failure?

A. The local disk must be the first device in the boot order.
B. eUSB is not a supported boot device.
C. eUSB support is available only on the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server.
D. eUSB is not the first device in the boot order for the server.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
A customer is troubleshooting degraded DIMM errors on a Cisco UCS blade server and would like
to reset the BMC. What is the correct command sequence to reset the BMC?

A. UCS1-A# server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

B. UCS1-A# server scope
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

C. UCS1-A# scope server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

D. UCS1-A# scope server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which commands can you enter to see if a component in the Cisco UCS domain generated a core
file?

A. 6100-A# scope monitoring
6100-A /monitoring # scope sysdebug
6100-A /monitoring/sysdebug # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
B. 6100-A# scope sysdebug
6100-A /sysdebug # scope monitoring
6100-A /sysdebug/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
C. 6100-A# scope system
6100-A /system # scope monitoring
6100-A /system/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
D. 6100-A# scope cores
6100-A /cores # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———
E. 6100-A# scope logging
6100-A /logging # scope monitoring
6100-A /logging/monitoring # show cores
Core Files:
Name Fabric ID
———- ———

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which four tech support files can you create with the Cisco UCS Manager that you can submit to
Cisco TAC for support? (Choose four.)

A. UCSM
B. disk LUNs
C. fabric extender
D. memory
E. rack server
F. chassis
G. server cache

Answer: A,C,E,F

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show techsupport
command output information about the Cisco UCS domain? (Choose two.)

A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SCP
D. Telnet
E. SecureTelnet

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

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Are you Smart Enough to Know Fake CCNA Training Programs?

Posted on April 27, 2013 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP, Tech Leave a comment

Are you Smart Enough to Know Fake CCNA Training Programs?

CCNA certification provides you the awareness and knowledge to operate, install , organize and troubleshoot nearly all switched and the routed networks.

If you are a person who is interested in having a career in IT related occupations, then you might have heard about the great benefits that CCNA certifications offer. As one of the Cisco reliable program, this is very popular and it has so many participants who are interested in having a brilliant career in this field. The result is that there are so many companies offering certain products that promise fast methods in getting CCNA certification. As there are so many scams in almost every subject on the World Wide Web, this program is also becoming one of so many subjects that spammers want to deal with to gain illegal money.

Fake or Not?
review fraud shutterstock 300×199 Are you Smart Enough to Know Fake CCNA Training Programs?

It is important to comprehend about each aspect about CCNA training because it is a bit complicated. So, one should make sure that he does not waste his money for useless things. It is important to know about the details of the offer because it will be easier to deal with CCNA programs when one is having at least a general knowledge related to IT and technology related subjects.

The best clue is that when the program looks too good to be true, then you should beware of it. CCNA trainings are very expensive and difficult at the same time and you cannot just believe that the programs have very easy tasks for you to handle. The worse thing is that when the program is particularly affordable. CCNA certifications require high amount of money and this is why many giant companies really want to recruit those people who are CCNA certified as they have paid a lot for such high-end knowledge of technology.
Huge Money, Huge Effort and That is the Real CCNA

Cisco and its CCNA programs are extraordinary and there is no other institution that can compete the existence of Cisco so far. If you have at least $3000 then you may start your CCNA training. You might want to take other training courses in IT but it may not give you a satisfying result afterwards. You may only waste your money—though it is cheaper than the amount that you have to pay when you choose CCNA training—because you will get less reliable result.

You have no choice other than spending huge money and huge effort when you want to be CCNA certified. There are the official websites of Cisco that offers real programs that you can join and you will see the difference.

Conclusion:
Get a Cisco Certified Network Associate certification, or just CCNA certification and become a CCNA professional to enhance your capabilities and become a successful person.

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