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Category Archives: Cisco Specialist

600-210 Implementing Cisco Service Provider Mobility UMTS Networks (SPUMTS)

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QUESTION 1
Which organization developed and maintains the Universal Mobile Telecommunications System?

A. 3GPP2
B. 3GPP
C. ITU
D. ANSI

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which two services does GPRS support? (Choose two.)

A. MMS
B. SMS
C. Video Calling
D. EMM
E. ESM

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which part of the OSI model contains the Signalling Connection Control Part protocol?

A. Data link layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Application layer
E. Presentation layer

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What two routing keys can be used to filter SS7 messages? (Choose two.)

A. DPC
B. DPC [+SSN]
C. IMEI
D. MSISDN
E. IMEISV

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
In MGT-based routing, which option is the GT address format of the called party?

A. E.212
B. E.164
C. E.412
D. E.214
E. E.216

Answer: D

Explanation:

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600-211 Implementing Cisco Service Provider Mobility CDMA Networks (SPCDMA)

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QUESTION 1
Which interface carries signaling information between PCF and PDSN?

A. A8
B. A9
C. A10
D. A11

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which underlying protocol is used for RADIUS messages in CDMA?

A. TCP
B. SCTP
C. UDP
D. ICMP

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which protocol is used during PPP negotiation to assign an IP address to the mobile device for a
simple IP call?

A. LCP
B. IPCP
C. CHAP
D. EAP

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which is an attribute in MIP RRQ?

A. Correlation ID
B. NAS-Identifier
C. Framed-IP-Address
D. Care-of-Address
E. Framed-Interface-ID

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which bit in HA Registration Revocation message is used by PDSN/FA to determine Mobile
notification?

A. ‘A’ bit
B. ‘I’ bit
C. ‘M’ bit
D. ‘R’ bit

Answer: B

Explanation:

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600-501 Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability (NPIBA)

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QUESTION 1
Which option best describes explicit routing?

A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. destination-based routing
C. link-state routing
D. Shortest Path First
E. static routes

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of Address Resolution Protocol in an IP data network?

A. Given a known MAC address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant IP address.
B. Given a known IP address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant MAC address.
C. Given a known URL, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant IP address.
D. Given a known IP address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant URL.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which factor limits the maximum number of IEEE 802.1Q VLANs to 4096?

A. the length of the VLAN ID field of the 802.1Q frame
B. the length of the Tag Protocol ID field of the 802.1Q frame
C. the size of the TCAM memory of the Layer 2 switch
D. the size of the VLAN table of the Layer 2 switch

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct way to summarize these different routes into a single route?

A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 10.10.0.0/16
C. 10.10.0.0/22
D. 10.10.3.0/22
E. 10.10.1.0/22

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
What is the default administrative distance for a static route?

A. 0
B. 255
C. 1
D. 110
E. 254

Answer: C

Explanation:

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600-503 Designing with Cisco Network Programmability

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QUESTION 1
Which two advantages of an overlay network that consists of virtual switches on supervisors
compare with those of physical networks? (Choose two.)

A. Ability to change the logical network topology more easily.
B. Ability to experience higher performance of traffic forwarding.
C. Overlay networks integrate with virtual machines more closely
D. They can support more routing protocols.
E. They are more secure.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which two options are challenges to migrate a traditional network to an SDN type of network?
(Choose two.)

A. would cost to replace traditional network devices to new devices
B. would need more operators to run a more complicated network
C. would need operators with more programming skill
D. would need more bandwidth to secure redundant paths
E. would need to remove existing network management tools

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which statement is an example of a requirement that is not well-formed?

A. The application should provide status messages every 60 seconds.
B. The application user interface must be easy to use.
C. The application must validate that the IP addresses that are input by users are valid IPv4 or
IPv6 addresses.
D. The application must be available for end users between 8am and 8pm EST/EDT, Monday
through Friday.
E. The application should restart within 15 seconds.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which option is a requirement represented in an Agile software development methodology?

A. interviews
B. product functions
C. product requirements document
D. user stories
E. home stenographer

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which four components should be considered when gathering business requirements for a
customer project? (Choose four.)

A. alignment to corporate goals
B. compliance regulations
C. development team location
D. commitments to customers
E. supplier capabilities
F. business unit providing the developers

Answer: A,B,D,E

Explanation:

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700-603 UCS Invicta for Field Engineers

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QUESTION 1
Which type of workload does Iometer that is configured to generate 4 K blocks, 50% read. 50%
write, and 100% random operations represent?

A. Bulk data load of a database table
B. OLTP
C. OLAP multidimensional cube
D. Extract, transform, and load
E. Data warehouse

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which technology has had the weakest performance growth since the year 2000?

A. Hard drives
B. Memory
C. Bus
D. Broadband wireless
E. Network
F. Processors

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which two systems does Hadoop consists of? (Choose two.)

A. Atlas
B. Map reduce
C. ZFS
D. HDFS
E. A snowflake schema systems engine
F. Astar schema systems engine

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which settings must be configured on the management interface bond?

A. IP address, subnet mask, MTU,mode,and boot order
B. IP address, subnet mask, MTU, and mode
C. IP address and subnet mask
D. MAC address. IP address, subnet mask, and MTU
E. MAC address, subnet mask,MTU,and mode

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which statement about the creation of a new LUN when enabling LUN mirroring is true?

A. The new LUN must be created on a performance node.
B. The new LUN must not reside on the same scaling solution node as the original lun to be
mirrored.
C. The new LUN mustreside on the same scaling solution node as the original LUN to be mirrored.
D. The new LUN must be created on a data reduction node.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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600-504 Implementing Cisco Network Programmability (NPENG)

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about RFC6020 are true? (Choose two.)

A. YANG is a data modeling language.
B. YANG is a protocol to configure network devices.
C. YANG is used by OF-CONFIG.
D. YANG is used by BGP-LS.
E. YANG is an object-oriented programming language.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Applications compiled by Java are better adaptive to different operating systems like Windows and
Linux than applications compiled by C compiler.
Which option describes why Java applications are more independent from the OS than C
applications?

A. Java has a DLL to abstract the difference of OS.
B. Java compiler is smarter than C compiler.
C. Java compiler creates byte code that is run on Java VM, and Java VM is prepared for each OS.
D. This is an urban legend. No difference between Java and C.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which option describes what VPLS, GRE, and VXLAN are examples of?

A. network operational models
B. virtualized networks
C. network slicing mechanisms
D. overlay networks
E. neural networks
F. protocol independent networks
G. link-state networks
H. open networks

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
Which two licenses are compatible with the GNU General Public License? (Choose two.)

A. Apache License version 1.1
B. Creative Commons licenses
C. MIT license
D. Mozilla Public License version 1.1
E. Modified BSD license

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
A financial transaction processing application is in development testing. The developers can
access the web interface, but they are unable to log in to the application.
Which two steps are important for troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

A. Check for proper installation of the X Window System.
B. Verify that the correct login credentials are being used.
C. Check the routing between the user and the application web server.
D. Check the authentication system to see if it is operating correctly.
E. Check the load-balancer configuration.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

 

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642-359 Implementing Cisco Storage Network Solutions

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QUESTION 1
Which command would you use to determine if device aliases in VSAN 5 are configured for
fabriC.wide distribution?

A. show zoneset name alias vsan 5
B. show cfs application name device-alias
C. showfcalias distribution vsan 5
D. show vsan 5 device-alias status

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Drop
Drag the Cisco analysis tool on the left to its appropriate description on the right.

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
The MDS 9000 family switches use what three technologies to protect against unauthorized
management access? (Choose three.)

A. SNMPV3
B. SSH
C. RBAC
D. RMON
E. E. ses
F. WEBM

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?

A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which two of these environments suggest the use of FCIP Write Acceleration? (Choose two.)

A. remote tape backup
B. Port Channel links between sites
C. applications that support multiple outstanding l/Os
D. fast network with minimal delays
E. DWDM links

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

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642-352 Associated Certifications: Cisco Storage Networking Support Specialist

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QUESTION 1
Which SAN extension topology is a low-latency, cost-effective, high-bandwidth solution that is
suitable only within a limited geographical area?

A. FCIP
B. DWDM
C. CWDM
D. SONET/SDH

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your Cisco MDS 9509 configuration requires 2000 watts of power and is configured with two
2500W power supplies. If 110V power is provided to the switch, in which power mode does the
switch operate?

A. The director will operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director will operate in combined mode only
C. The director will operate in redundant mode or combined mode
D. The director cannot operate with 110V power

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two kinds of applications require sustained throughput and are sensitive to latency?
(Choose two.)

A. synchronous replication
B. asynchronous replication
C. OLTP
D. tape backup
E.
F. mail

Answer: A,D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following designs would provide your customer with the highest performance and port
utilization?

A. multi-tier design
B. collapsed core design
C. corE.edge design
D. singlE.tier design

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer plans to add a tape backup subsystem to its existing storage network. In which
location should the customer place the tape backup device in order to provide the best
performance during backup and recovery?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: B

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642-321 Cisco Optical SDH Exam

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QUESTION 1
What is the phenomenon called where different wavelengths of light travel at different speeds?

A. attenuation
B. OSNR
C. dispersion
D. light skew

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Why are the 1300 nm and 1550 nm regions of the fiber spectrum primarily used for optical
communications?

A. They are both regions of lowest loss.
B. They are both regions of low index of refraction.
C. They are both regions of low chromatic dispersion.
D. They are both regions of low reflections.
E. They are both regions of low Polarization Mode Dispersion (PMD).

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
For lasers with tightly controlled wavelengths, approximately how far apart are the centers of
adjacent wavelengths when 100 GHz spacing is used in a DWDM system?

A. 0.8 nanometers
B. 1.6 nanometers
C. 0.4 nanometers
D. 1.2 nanometers
E. 0.6 nanometers

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which device creates an OEO conversion?

A. fiber-optic cable
B. regenerator
C. optical receiver
D. optical switch
E. attenuator
F. amplifier
G. light emitter

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
If node 2 is accepting line timing from node 1, node 2 will send _____ to node 1 as its SSM
messge.

A. SMC
B. AMI
C. ESF
D. PRS
E. DUS
F. B8ZS

Answer: E

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