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CCNA Qualifications ; Satisfaction Guaranteed

Posted on August 23, 2012 by Lindsay Posted in CCNA, Tech

CCNA Qualifications ; Satisfaction Guaranteed

CCNA Security Certification
Cisco Certified Network Associate Security (CCNA Security) validates associate-level knowledge and skills required to secure Cisco networks. With a CCNA Security certification, a network professional demonstrates the skills required to develop a security infrastructure, recognize threats and vulnerabilities to networks, and mitigate security threats. The CCNA Security curriculum emphasizes core security technologies, the installation, troubleshooting and monitoring of network devices to maintain integrity, confidentiality and availability of data and devices, and competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security structure.

CCNA Security Recertification
CCNA Security certifications are valid for three years. To recertify, pass ONE of the following before the certification expiration date:

Pass any current CCNA Concentration exam (wireless, or security, or voice, or SP Ops), or
Pass any current 642-XXX Professional level exam, or
Pass the current CCDA DESGN exam, or
Pass any current Cisco Specialist exam (excluding Sales Specialist exams or MeetingPlace Specialist exams, Implementing Cisco TelePresence Installations (ITI) exams, Cisco Leading Virtual Classroom Instruction exams, or any 650 online exams), or
Pass any current CCIE Written Exam, or
Pass the current CCDE Written Exam or current CCDE Practical Exam, or
Pass the Cisco Certified Architect (CCAr) interview and the CCAr board review to extend lower certifications

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Network being the most competitive internet domain names of computer; let’s have a closer glance at the secrets of achieving success together with Cisco certified network associate certification assessment. The road associated with ‘cisco’ certifications
Looking for Cisco occupation, step one is experiencing the 1st level of the particular Cisco qualification I. Elizabeth. CCNA accreditation. This particular qualification is designed to verify a fundamental and also likely first step toward networking skills, which includes:

· Fundamental knowledge of the actual OSI guide product,
· Network standards,
· Level A couple of changing aspects as well as protocols,
· Redirecting ideas as well as methods, and
· Wide-area networking (WAN) online connectivity.

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Anyone that opens Cisco certified network associate accreditation must have the experience necessary to present standard system installation along with stage 1 troubleshooting expertise. Your study course load insures all the subject areas which might be the basis regarding marketing technologies and protocols. Therefore any expert which require making profession throughout network especially in ‘cisco’ technology, require a firm comprehension of these knowledge, and then only one gets a much better knowledge of complicated engineering afterwards.

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· A complete comprehension of networking fundamentals
· the ability to manage & troubleshoot and fix ‘cisco’ social networking gadgets to use in the network

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640-822 Q & A / Study Guide

Posted on February 7, 2012 by Lindsay Posted in CCNP, Cisco, Tech

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QUESTION 1
After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts
in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity
issues. What will fix this problem?

A. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
B. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
C. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
E. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the graphic. A Cisco router and a Catalyst switch are connected as shown. The technician
is working on a computer that is connected to the management console of the switch. In order to
configure the default gateway for the switch, the technician needs to learn the IP address of the
attached router interface. Which IOS command will provide this information in the absence of
Layer 3 connectivity?

A. showcdp neighbors detail
B. pingrouter_ip_address
C. showip neighbors
D. pingswitch_ip_address
E. showdhcp-config
F. showip rarp

Answer: A

Explanation:
To display detailed information about neighboring devices discovered using Cisco Discovery
Protocol (CDP), use the show cdp neighbors privileged EXEC command.
Detail – (Optional) Displays detailed information about a neighbor (or neighbors) including network
address, enabled protocols, hold time, and software version.
The following is sample output for the show cdp neighbors detail command.
router# show cdp neighbors detail
————————-
Device ID: lab-7206
Entry address( es ):
IP address: 172.19.169.83
Platform: cisco 7206VXR, Capabilities: Router
Interface: Ethernet0, Port ID (outgoing port): FastEthernet0/0/0
Holdtime : 123 sec
Version :
Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software
IOS ™ 5800 Software (C5800-P4-M), Version 12.1(2)
Copyright (c) 1986-2002 by Cisco Systems, Inc.
advertisement version: 2
Duplex: half

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
B. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
C. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
D. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.

Answer: B,E

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for
management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. IP routing on SW-A
B. default gateway on SW-A
C. VLAN 1 on RTA
D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure a default gateway on SW-A.
In order for a switch to send traffic to a destination that is not located directly, as is the case in our
example, a default gateway must be configured on the switch. This will enable it to send the traffic
to router RTA where it can be routed to host A.

QUESTION 5
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
B. the summarized address for all of the internalsubnetted addresses
C. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
D. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

Answer: C

Explanation:
With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows:
Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address
configured as a parameter of the computer’s OS or received via dynamic address allocation
protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the
Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider.
Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that
represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not
necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host’s
owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.
The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines
these terms by first defining “local address” and “global address.” Keep in mind that the terms
“inside” and “outside” are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as “inside” or
“outside” with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside . Networks to
which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as “inside” networks or “outside” networks,
respectively.
Local address – A local address is any address that appears on the “inside” portion of the
network.
Global address – A global address is any address that appears on the “outside” portion of the
network.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?

A. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
C. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
E. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
F. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the
exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a
correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on
the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?

A. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
B. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. A loopback is not set.
F. The IP address is incorrect.

Answer: F

QUESTION 8
The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing
the command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Username/password is incorrectly configured.
B. Router names are incorrectly configured.
C. Serialip addresses
D. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When setting up local password database in CHAP, configure commands username username
password password in overall configuration mode to add note to local password database. Note
that the username here should be the router name on the opposite side. And the password should
be the same as that in the password database of CHAP authentication server. The above graphic
shows different password.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A. cut-through
B. load balancing
C. congestion avoidance
D. buffering
E. windowing

Answer: C,D,E

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640-692 Q & A / Study Guide

Posted on January 8, 2012 by Lindsay Posted in CCIE, CCNA, CCNP, Cisco, Tech

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QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not
usually pass normal network traffic?

A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)

A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing
toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug?
(Choose two)

A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)

A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a DTE device?

A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two)

A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 8
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port
on a Cisco router?

A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover

Answer: A

Explanation:

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Cisco 642-515 Q & A / Study Guide

Posted on December 17, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in CCIE, CCNA, CCNP, Cisco, Tech

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements correctly describe configuring active active failover? (Choose two.)

A. You must assign contexts to failover groups from the admin context.
B. Both units must be in multiple mode.
C. You must configure two failover groups group 1 and group 2.
D. You must use a crossover cable to connect the failover links on the two failover peers.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 2
Observe the following exhibit carefully. When TCP connections are tunneled over another TCP
connection and latency exists between the two endpoints, each TCP session would trigger a
retransmission, which can quickly spiral out of control when the latency issues persist. This issue
is often called TCP-over-TCP meltdown. According to the presented Cisco ASDM configuration,
which Cisco ASA security appliance configuration will most likely solve this problem?

A. Compression
B. MTU size of 500
C. Keepalive Messages
D. Datagram TLS

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
The IT department of your company must perform a custom-built TCP application within the
clientless SSL VPN portal configured on your Cisco ASA security appliance. The application
should be run by users who have either guest or normal user mode privileges. In order to allow
this application to run, how to configure the clientless SSL VPN portal?

A. configure a smart tunnel for the application
B. configure a bookmark for the application
C. configure the plug-in that best fits the application
D. configure port forwarding for the application

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
According to the following exhibit. When a host on the inside network attempted an HTTP
connection to a host at IP address 172.26.10.100, which address pool will be used by the Cisco
ASA security appliance for the NAT?

A. 192.168.8.101 – 192.168.8.105
B. 192.168.8.20 – 192.168.8.100
C. 192.168.8.106 – 192.168.8.110
D. 192.168.8.20 – 192.168.8.110

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Study the following exhibit carefully. You are asked to configure the Cisco ASA security appliance
with a connection profile and group policy for full network access SSL VPNs. During a test of the
configuration using the Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client, the connection times out. In the process of
troubleshooting, you determine to make configuration changes. According to the provided Cisco
ASDM configuration, which configuration change will you begin with?

A. Require a client certificate on the interface.
B. Enable an SSL VPN client type on the interface.
C. Enable DTLS on the interface.
D. Enable a different access port that doesn’t conflict with Cisco ASDM.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are the network security administrator for the CKD company. You create an FTP inspection
policy including the strict option, and it is applied to the outside interface of the corporate adaptive
security appliance. How to handle FTP on the security appliance after this policy is applied?
(Choose three.)

A. FTP inspection is applied to traffic entering the inside interface.
B. Strict FTP inspection is applied to traffic entering the outside interface.
C. FTP inspection is applied to traffic exiting the inside interface.
D. Strict FTP inspection is applied to traffic exiting the outside interface.

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 7
Which three statements correctly describe protocol inspection on the Cisco ASA adaptive security
appliance? (Choose three.)

A. The protocol inspection feature of the security appliance securely opens and closes negotiated
ports and IP addresses for legitimate client-server connections through the security appliance.
B. For the security appliance to inspect packets for signs of malicious application misuse, you
must enable advanced (application layer) protocol inspection.
C. If inspection for a protocol is notenabled, traffic for that protocol may be blocked.
D. If you want to enable inspection globally for a protocol that is not inspected by default or if you
want to globally disable inspection for a protocol, you can edit the default global policy.

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 8
An SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer virtual private network) is a form of VPN that can be used
with a standard Web browser. After configuring port forwarding for a clientless SSL VPN
connection, if port forwarding is to work, which end user privilege level is required at the endpoint?

A. system level
B. guest level
C. user level
D. administrator level

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two methods can be used to decrease the amount of time it takes for an active Cisco ASA
adaptive security appliance to fail over to its standby failover peer in an activeactive failover
configuration? (Choose two.)

A. decrease the interface failover poll time
B. decrease the unit failover poll time
C. use the special serial failover cable to connect the security appliances
D. use single mode

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 10
Multimedia applications transmit requests on TCP, get responses on UDP or TCP, use dynamic
ports, and use the same port for source and destination, so they can pose challenges to a firewall.
Which three items are true about how the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance handles
multimedia applications? (Choose three.)

A. It dynamically opens and closes UDP ports for secure multimedia connections, so you do not
need to open a large range of ports.
B. It supports SIP with NAT but not with PAT.
C. It supports multimedia with or without NAT.
D. It supports RTSP, H.323, Skinny, and CTIQBE.

Answer: A,C,D

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Cisco 640-461 Q & A / Study Guide

Posted on December 11, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in CCNA, Cisco, Tech

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are features in Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)

A. IP Phone Messenger
B. Native Presence
C. BLF speed-dial
D. Enterprise Instant Messaging
E. BLF speed-dial pickup

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
An end user reports that they are unable to control their Cisco IP phone using Cisco Unified
Personal Communicator and cannot make any calls. Which situation can cause this issue?

A. The Cisco Unified Personal Communicator is not registered in the Cisco Unified Presence
server.
B. The LDAP integration is incorrect.
C. The Cisco Unified Personal Communicator is configured in desk-phone mode.
D. The Allow Control of Device from CTI checkbox in the device configuration on Cisco Unified
Communications Manager is disabled.
E. The Allow Control of Device from CTI checkbox in the device configuration on the Cisco Unified
Presence is disabled.

Answer: D

Explanation: Incorrect
Answer: ABC
Link :
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cups/8_0/english/install_upgrade/deployment/g
uide/dgclient.html

QUESTION 3
Which description describes the low latency queuing algorithm?

A. Empty queue 1. If queue 1 is empty, empty queue 2, then empty queue 3, unless a packet for a
higher queue arrives.
B. An administrator defines the traffic classes based on match criteria, including protocols, access
control lists, and input interfaces.
C. A flow-based algorithm that simultaneously schedules interactive traffic to the front of a queue
to reduce response time and fairly shares the remaining bandwidth among high-bandwidth flows.
D. This feature brings strict priority queuing to CBWFQ.
E. Packets are placed into a single queue and serviced in the order they were received.

Answer: D

Explanation: Incorrect
Answer: ABC
A & C denotes to weighted fair queue or DWFQ. B denotes to CBWFQ (class based weighted fair
queue).
Link:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/qos/configuration/guide/qcdconmg.html#wp1001019

QUESTION 4

Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to locate and remove all unassigned directory numbers on the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager system. Which method is the best method to accomplish this
task?

A. Choose Device > Phone. Search all phones and remove the undesired directory numbers.
B. Use the Dial Plan Installer to remove the directory numbers.
C. Use the Disaster Recovery System to restore only valid directory numbers.
D. Choose Call Routing > Route Plan Report, choose the Unassigned DN drop-down menu, and
then remove all orphaned directory numbers.
E. Choose Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults and use the wizard to locate and remove
the orphaned directory numbers.

Answer: D

Explanation: Incorrect answer: ABCE

A. Assigned phone could be deleted from device>phone option. E. Device defaults are used to
updating devices.
Link:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_5_1/ccmcfg/b03rtrep.html#wp10
24696

QUESTION 6
When troubleshooting a phone that is unable to get an IP address from a DHCP server, what is
the first thing to check for on the phone?

A. Make sure that DHCP Enabled is disabled on the phone.
B. Make sure that the phone is getting the proper VLAN information.
C. Make sure that the TFTP server address is correct on the phone.
D. Make sure that the DHCP scope has enough addresses left in the range.
E. Make sure the phone has the correct phone load ID.

Answer: B

Explanation: Incorrect
Answer: ACDE
IP phones rely on a TFTP-based process to acquire configuration files, software images, and other
endpoint-specific information. The Cisco TFTP service is a file serving system that can run on one
or more Unified CM servers.
Link: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/8x/netstruc.html#wp1185040

QUESTION 7
Which issue does CAS signaling on a T1 circuit create?

A. Signaling bits are subtracted from each frame, which causes a significant loss of voice quality.
B. An extra signaling bit is added to the sixth frame to carry signaling information.
C. A signaling bit is subtracted from every sixth frame to carry signaling information.
D. Signaling bits are added to the signaling stream to create extended super frames.

Answer: C

Explanation: Incorrect answer: ABD
Each T1 channel carries a sequence of frames. These frames consist of 192 bits and an additional
bit designated as the framing bit, for a total of 193 bits per frame. Super Frame (SF) groups twelve
of these 193 bit frames together and designates the framing bits of the even numbered frames as
signaling bits. CAS looks specifically at every sixth frame for the timeslot’s or channel’s associated
signaling information
Link:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ tk6 52/ tk6 53/technologies_tech_note09186a00800e2560.shtml

QUESTION 8
How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express match an outbound VoIP dial
peer?

A. Outbound dial-peer matching uses the entire string of digits en bloc to match the dial peer with
the longest match.
B. Outbound dial-peer matching is completed on a digit-by-digit basis.
C. It matches outbound dial peers by placing all the dial peers into a hunt group and then uses the
entire dialed number en bloc to match the first dial peer.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express creates a hunt group that contains all the
configured dial peers and then applies the dial digits in a digit-by-digit manner to match a dial peer.

Answer: A

Explanation: Incorrect answer: BCD
When a router receives a voice call, it selects an outbound dial peer by comparing the called
number (the full E.164 telephone number) in the call information with the number configured as the
destination pattern for the POTS dial peer. The router then strips out the left-justified numbers
corresponding to the destination pattern matching the called number. If you have configured a
prefix, the prefix will be put in
front of the remaining numbers, creating a dial string, which the router will then dial. If all numbers
in the destination pattern are stripped-out, the user will receive (depending on the attached
equipment) adial tone.

QUESTION 9
In which situation are user PINs maintained by the local Cisco Unified Communications servers?

A. Only when the system is using LDAP synchronization.
B. Only when the system is using LDAP authentication.
C. Only when the system is using Global Directory.
D. PINs are always maintained by the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers
E. PINs are never maintained by the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers.

Answer: D

Explanation: Incorrect answer: ABC
Cisco Unified Communications Manager assigns the system Default Credential Policy to end user
passwords, end user PINS, and application user passwords
Link: https://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_Unified_MeetingPlace_Release_8.0_–
_Configuring_Cisco_Unified_MeetingPlace_Directory_Service#Configuring_the_User_PIN_in_Cis
co_Unified_Communications_Manager

QUESTION 10
An IP phone has a line calling search space and a device calling search space. If a call is made
from the IP phone, which calling search space is used?

A. Neither calling search space is used.
B. The line calling search space takes precedence and is used.
C. The device calling search space takes precedence and is used.
D. The line and device calling search spaces are combined and the line calling search space has
precedence.

Answer: D

Explanation: Incorrect answer: ABC
If you configure a calling search space both on an IP phone line and on the device (IP phone)
itself, Cisco Unified Communications Manager concatenates the two calling search spaces and
places the line calling search space in front of the device calling search space
Link: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_0_2/ccmsys/a03ptcss.html

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How Open Source Development Is Becoming More Social

Posted on September 29, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in Amazon, Apple, Career, Cisco, Google, Java, Microsoft, Tech

Most people do not think of software developers as being high on the “social” scale. In fact, the (misinformed) stereotype for a typical developer is that of the introverted geek. But in many ways, particularly with open source developers, this couldn’t be further from the truth.

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Contributing to open source software is a profoundly social activity. Some of open source’s main tenets are collaboration, transparency and meritocracy, which require developers to collaborate and share at a highly productive level. And with over 500,000 open source projects on the Internet, there’s a lot of collaboration going on. It’s clear that by participating in open source communities, developers are engaging in productive social behavior.

While some people may picture open source developers as working quietly and in isolation, the reality is they may work on large projects with a wide community of collaborators. For example, Linux has nearly 10,000 contributors. Others may focus on small, personal projects, which may or may not draw the attention of the larger development community.

But even developers working on small projects are still working with other people. And virtually all new open source projects derive from those projects and the developers that preceded them, creating a vast body of work that accelerates innovation and fuels further collaboration.

Today’s open source developers are contributing to projects in very different ways than just a few years ago. What has changed?
Search + Social Media = Social Development

Two developments — search and social media — have changed the way coders work to create “social development,” a new style of software collaboration. Let’s look first at social media’s influence on it.

Social media’s impact has forced change (some good and some bad) in nearly every sector of the economy — including open source development. While communities such as Slashdot and Stack Overflow provided an early glimpse of social media’s impact on development in the FOSS community and encouraged developers to become more active within these and other communities, the effect took some time to achieve.

Today, it’s not unusual to see enterprise software developers more active in social media circles, even as enterprises themselves are evolving socially. According to a recent study by Forrester, developers are engaging socially; they’re joining communities to connect with experts, seeking answers to business problems and, like many people, networking for career advancement. The figure above shows the leading reasons developers join communities: to connect with thought leaders, gain expertise and engage in high quality discussions.

Web search has also enhanced the importance of social media among open source developers, affecting this new style of development. My company recently commissioned a study with Forrester to investigate the social habits of developers. As shown above, contributors to open source projects turn to online search first for information about development technologies, followed by social sites like networks, forums and other online communities.

Developers also share search results via open source or project forums, communities and more general social media tools like Twitter.

As a result, today’s “social developer,” even if not an employee of a large enterprise, is participating more than ever with enterprises – or more specifically, with developers in those enterprises who are increasingly involved with FOSS communities of various types.

Social development arms corporate developers with a new toolset for producing innovative and high quality software at enterprise scale faster than ever before. This style of development wasn’t possible just a few years ago before search, social media tools and online collaboration tools made it possible to create software using social development techniques. Nevertheless, the evolution has been crucial to the success of businesses and individual developers.

Another pivotal change is the fact that enterprise IT organizations are now discovering the need to “go social” and join communities as a strategy for leveraging and using more open source software, especially mission-critical components. This significant trend reflects the reality that open source use is becoming a competitive requirement. Even within the firewall of an enterprise, the trend toward collaborative development to share best practices, facilitate code reuse, and enhance developer productivity is escalating rapidly.

Other environmental and technical changes have supported the emergence of social development. Communications between project committers — which until recently were conducted through IRC channels and wikis — have expanded with the increased number of social communities. And today more than ever, FOSS developers are actively seeking enterprise adoption of their code.

Another change is the emergence of sites like Ohloh, a free community resource, which was specifically designed to support and encourage social development and to allow developers to give each other kudos (literally). The figure above also lists the contributors for a project called Restlet, a Java REST framework for web developers. Shown on the page are the developer profiles, kudos and code commitments to the project.

While social development isn’t a challenge for Gen Y developers, it still presents management challenges for enterprises, especially larger ones. Moving at web speed and using social tools still requires some adjustment. For example, new college hires expect to be community participants, yet large enterprises may not be comfortable with this level of transparency. Although open source projects are based on the notion of transparency, collaboration and meritocracy, some corporate policies may prohibit or limit this philosophy, just like some corporate cultures may resist the trend toward openness in development.

Social interaction and social development offer tremendous new opportunities for developers and enterprises. The advent of social media tools has changed the nature of community participation as much as search. If you and your organization have not joined the growing number of “social developers,” now is the time to start.

640-816 Exam

Posted on September 26, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in CCNA, Cisco, Tech

QUESTION 1
Which three options can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?
(Choose three.)

A. authentication
B. VLAN support
C. compression
D. multilink support

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the
information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
C. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network
D. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

Answer: A

Explanation:
As can be seen above, the hello interval for R1 has been set to 5 seconds, while it is set to 10 for
R2. Also, the dead interval on R1 is set at 20 seconds while on router CKD2 it is set to 40 seconds.
In order for two routers to establish an OSPF neigh adjacency, the hello and dead timers must
match.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are
shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
C. SwitchX (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX (config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by2950Switch.
C. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
D. All frames arriving on2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out
fa0/1.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky
addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to
restrict a port’s ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into
the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward
ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the
number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device
attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.
Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with
static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with
sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.
If you enter a write memory or copy running- config startup- config command, then port security
with sticky MAC addresses saves dynamically learned MAC addresses in the startup- config file
and the port does not have to learn addresses from ingress traffic after bootup or a restart.
Since the maximum number of MAC addresses has been configured to 1, only host A will be able
to send frames on interface fa 0/1, making choice C correct.

QUESTION 5
A university has a small campus in which 25 faculty members are located. The faculty offices and
student computers are currently on the same network. The faculty are concerned about students
being able to capture packets going across the network and obtain sensitive material. In order to
protect faculty network traffic from student connections ,which action will you take?

A. Remove the student computers from the network and put them on a peer-to-peer network.
B. Put the faculty computers in a separate VLAN.
C. Power down the switches that connect to faculty computers when they are not in use.
D. Install anti-virus software on the student computers.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as dual-stack routing.

A. False
B. True

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator. You configure a workgroup switch with all ports assigned to
VLAN 2. And you configure all ports as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding
switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were
attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes
as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located
on the same LAN segment.
Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network
based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical
or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup
can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or
interaction with other workgroups. Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead
of physically relocating devices.
Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP
subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is
routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger
network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later.
A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches.
Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast , multicast, and broadcast
traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports
belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will
normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.

QUESTION 8
Which technology helps prevent frames from looping continuously through this switched network?

A. EIGRP
B. VTP
C. STP
D. ARP

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating as trunks?(Choose three)

Sw-AC3#show int trunk

A. Fa0/1
B. Fa0/9
C. Fa0/12
D. Fa0/3

Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 10
You are a network administrator. You want to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet
access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. To accomplish this
task, what command should be used?

A. access-list 101 denyip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 denytcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any

Answer: D

Explanation:
Only choice specifies the correct TCT port and wildcard mask, and uses a valid access list number.

Incorrect Answers:
A: IP is specified as the protocol, when it should be TCP.
B: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.
C: Access list 1 is used for these choices, which is a standard access list. In this example, an
extended access list is required. Choice C also specifies port 21, which is used by FTP not Telnet.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30

A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as
a VLAN to theSwitch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
theSwitch2 VLAN database.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP
domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server
mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP
information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be
advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive
updates, but they can’t make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added
to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here’s a hint: if
you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN
information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don’t participate in the VTP domain, but they’ll still
forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can’t add and
delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.
Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local
VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other
switch.

QUESTION 12
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-andspoke
Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured
between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need
to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?

A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25subnetworks so that at least two bits are
borrowed from the last octet.
B. Configure the noip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interfaces and configure point-to-point links toR2 and R3.
D. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from
reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will
accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?

A. denytcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permitip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permitip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
D. denytcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They can enhance network security.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They simplify switch administration.
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple, smaller LANs. This can be used to enhance
security as local traffic from one VLAN will not be passed to users in other VLANS.

QUESTION 15
A network administrator would configure port security on a switch, why?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Answer: C

Explanation:
You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying
MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC
addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the
group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a
single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of
the port.
If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is
reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of
the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure
MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a
violation is flagged.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps628/products_configuration_guide_chapter0
9186a00800d6a38.html#86378

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10 Most Hated Jobs

Posted on September 18, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in Career, CCIE, CCNA, CCNP, Cisco, Tech

At one time or another, we have all known at least one person who has hated his or her job. That person may have suffered silently or vented constantly, but at the end of the day there was no question this person was truly unhappy with where they spent at least 40 of his or her waking hours every week, for 51 weeks a year Cisco CCNA Certification 640-802 Exam Training.

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The reasons for job dissatisfaction vary. Low pay, irregular hours, and lack of a window seat are all assumed to be culprits, and to be sure they can all contribute to a bad attitude on the job. These are actually not the primary factors driving a worker to regard tomorrow morning at 9 o’clock sharp with dread and ill will, however, according to one resource.

CareerBliss is an online resource that bases job satisfaction on multiple factors, including workplace culture, coworkers, and the boss.

According a survey of hundreds of thousands of employees conducted in 2011, CareerBliss determined the 10 most hated jobs, rated on a scale of 1 to 10. In almost all cases, respondents reported that the factors causing the most job dissatisfaction were not lousy pay or a desk near the bathroom. CareerBliss found that limited growth opportunities and lack of reward drove the misery index up more than anything else.

Read about the 10 jobs with the highest levels of employee unhappiness. The results may surprise you.

1. Director of Information Technology
For all the press that teachers and nurses get for their long hours, low pay and thankless tasks, it may be surprising to see the most hated job was that of information technology director, according to CareerBliss. After all, the salary’s pretty good and with information technology such a prevalent part of everyday business, an IT director can hold almost as much sway over the fate of some companies as a chief executive.

Still, IT directors reported the highest level of dissatisfaction with their jobs, far surpassing that of any waitress, janitor, or bellhop. Of those who responded to the survey, one simple, five-word response summed up the antipathy very well: “Nepotism, cronyism, disrespect for workers.”

2. Director of Sales and Marketing
A director of sales and marketing plans implements efforts to promote companies and generate business. Responsibilities often include budget management, public relations, and employee training.

Sales and marketing directors reported the second-highest level of job dissatisfaction of all survey respondents. The majority who responded negatively cited a lack of direction from upper management and an absence of room for growth as the main sources of their ire.

3. Product Manager
“Product manager” is a wide-ranging job title that takes on many meanings, depending on the company and its sector. In some cases, the job requires simply evaluating what products are best suited to a company’s business model, and in others marketing, resource management, and scheduling are involved.

The level of job dissatisfaction was very high for this position. One respondent complained that it restricted growth, saying that it was “very hard to grow up the ranks.” Another was less polite and said “the work is boring and there’s a lot of clerical work still at my level.”

4. Senior Web Developer
Senior web developers design, maintain, and develop applications for the Internet. With every business expected to have some kind of Internet presence these days, developers are found working in every type of company, in a full-time, part-time, or freelance capacity.

A senior developer is expected to be fluent in client-side and server-side contexts, and know his or her way around Python, Ruby, or whatever other arcane technology requires taming. Senior developers reported a high degree of unhappiness in their jobs, attributable to a perception their employers are unable to communicate coherently, and lack an understanding of the technology.

[Click here to find an online degree program]

5. Technical Specialist
A technical specialist “leads the analysis, definition, design, construction, testing, installation, and modification of medium to large infrastructures,” according to CareerBliss. This means that if a company wants to design a project, the technical specialist evaluates it to see what’s possible and what isn’t.

The job is a lead position that requires intimate knowledge of engineering; familiarity with Linux helps, too. However, technical specialists reported that for all their expertise, they were treated with a palpable level of disrespect. They cited a “lack of communication from upper management” and felt their “input was not taken seriously.”

6. Electronics Technician
Electronics technicians maintain, troubleshoot and collect monthly measurement data for electronic systems. They work in every sector and can be employed with the phone company, a chain of fast-food restaurants, or the U.S. Navy. Whatever the case, technicians work on-site and off-site, have constant contact with clients, and must have an ability to quickly solve complex technical problems under intense pressure.

Employee dissatisfaction in this job is attributable to several factors. One respondent complained of having “too little control,” while another had a litany of complaints: “Work schedule, lack of accomplishment, no real opportunity for growth, peers have no motivation to work hard, no say in how things are done, hostility from peers towards other employees.”

7. Law Clerk
Clerkships are among the most highly sought-after positions in the legal profession. A law clerk assists judges as they write opinions, and the ones who get the job are almost always near the top of their class at law school. Six justices of the U.S. Supreme Court, including Elena Kagan and current Chief Justice John Roberts, were all law clerks early in their careers.

The job clearly beefs up a resume. Yet law clerks still report high levels of dissatisfaction. The hours are long and grueling, and the clerk is subject to the whims of sometimes mercurial personalities. The Bureau of Labor Statistics also reported the job brings in a median salary of $39,780 a year—not exactly striking it rich—and those looking for advancement within the position simply will not find it.

8. Technical Support Analyst
Technical support analysts help people with their computer issues. This typically amounts to calmly communicating technical advice to panicked individuals, often over the phone, and then going on site to find the client simply hadn’t turned the printer on.

Technical support analysts often work in a variety of environments, and they may be required to travel at a moment’s notice, sometimes on holidays or weekends. After all, there’s no telling when a client’s computer-whiz nephew might make a minor tweak to his machine, with disastrous results.

In the words of one of the respondents, “You can do better, really.”

9. CNC Machinist
CNC machinists operate computer numerical control machines. For the uninitiated, this is a machine that operates a lathe or a mill. On the upside, it renders obsolete processes that used to be performed by hand, at a slow pace and with high risk to the operator’s life and limb.

Now that the CNC operator has had most of the physical hazards of manufacturing replaced by a machine, there’s not a lot to do but push buttons and perform equipment inspections to make sure the coolant is at a safe level. Since it’s a specialized skill, the job offers no room for advancement, which caused respondents to report a high degree of dissatisfaction.

10. Marketing Manager
A marketing manager is responsible for overseeing advertising and promotion. This involves developing strategies to meet sales objectives, based on the study of such factors as customer surveys and market behavior.

According to CareerBliss, respondents in this position most often cited a lack of direction as the primary reason for job dissatisfaction. The most optimistic respondent described it as “tolerable,” and gave it the faintest praise possible by saying, “It’s a job.” (In this labor market, that’s not such a bad thing.)

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Cisco to offer HD video calls through your TV

Posted on September 16, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in Cisco, Tech

Just like in those crazy sci-fi movies

Cisco has announced HD video calls through your television, with the Cisco umi telepresence.

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The technology will use your existing HD television and broadband connection to deliver what Cisco is describing as “the most lifelike, natural video communication experience available to consumers today”.

“This new technology enables consumers to chat with their friends or family on a large screen with the highest resolution possible,” states Cisco’s release.

“Once consumers experience Cisco umi telepresence they will be amazed by the clear, lifelike experience when compared to traditional video conferencing Cisco CCNA Certification 640-802 Exam Training.”

Video growth

The growing popularity of Skype and the widespread availability of broadband connections means that video conferencing and calling is on the up, and Cisco are keen to be at the forefront of the move from the computer to the connected television.

Interestingly, Cisco is the company providing the tech for BT’s controversial Content Connect – a system which allows video traffic to be prioritised through its network, although there is no confirmation that Cisco’s telepresence will take advantage.

This technology creates the experience of being in the same room with friends and family, regardless of their location, insists Cisco.

“From grandparents seeing their grandchildren to sharing engagement news with relatives across the country and recording video birthday messages for loved ones Cisco umi telepresence allows family and friends to be together for everyday occurrences to life’s most important events.”

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Google+ Tips: 4 Tools to Boost Your Social Networking Experience

Posted on September 9, 2011 by Lindsay Posted in Google

Getting the hang of Google+ and looking for more? Check out these four Google+ tools that let you easily upload photos in bulk, find new people to follow, translate posts and more.

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CIO — While rumors continue to swirl about when the Google+ API will be released to developers, that’s not stopping some people from getting in on the Google+ action.

Whether you’re just starting out on Google+ or consider yourself an advanced user, more and more Google+ enhancements and add-ons are popping up across the Web.

Here’s a look at four new ones that do everything from streamlining bulk photo-uploading to helping you increase your network reach.

1. Google+ Photo Importer for iPhone
If you store your photos on multiple sites such as Facebook, Flickr, Instagram or Photobucket, there’s a new download available in the Apple App Store that lets you upload 100 photos in less than a minute to your Google+ account. This tool is especially handy if you plan on shifting your social networking focus to Google+.

The Google Plus Photo Importer by Dropico costs 99 cents, and while uploads I tested generally took longer than the advertised 60 seconds, it was still impressively fast.

10 Google+ tips for Beginners
Google+ Privacy: 5 Settings You Need to Know

2. Find People on Google+
Looking for more connections on Google+? While its own search feature only lets you find people by name, you can dig a bit deeper to find groups of people with certain characteristics at FindPeopleOnPlus.

Here, you can not only search for people by name, but you can also search by profession, location, relationship status, gender, education, employer, occupation and more, which makes growing your network and tailoring it to your needs a lot easier.

You can also choose to add yourself to its directory. This will keep your FindPeopleOnPlus profile updated and in-synch with your Google+ profile.

3. PlusClout
Akin to Klout.com, a site that measures your social media influence, PlusClout measures the influence a user has on Google+ and rates it from 0 to 100.

When you visit the site, PlusClout will ask you to insert your Google+ ID in order to generate your score. Your ID is the string of numbers that appear in the URL of your profile page.

PlusClout says that while its formula is still evolving, right now it calculates your number based on 15 million public Google+ profiles and items shared, such as posts, comments, +1s, the number of followers you have and the frequency and volume of information sharing.

You can also browse people with the highest PlusClout in categories such as bloggers, designers, entrepreneurs and the most-followed users on Google+. Click on any of these names and you will see their current PlusClout score, a graph of their score over the last five days, and websites associated with that person.
4. Google Translate for Google+

If you want to connect with people from around the world but find that language is a barrier, this is a must-download Google Chrome extension.

Google Translate for Google+ is a powerful tool that inserts a button into your Google+ streams, letting you quickly interpret a chunk of foreign text.